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Snooker discussion: Putting topspin on a cueball

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By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 20:45
If topspin was applied in the example.

The white ball would be further down the table( as top spin would give it more momentum in spin) on the second attempt. If the blue ball finishes identical to the first shot.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 20:45
Angel Gabriel i only go by experimental evidence..that has served science well so far
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 20:47
you are missing the point the white hs been hit softer
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 20:48
If the white has been hit softer then the blue ball will never reach position (a)
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 20:50
how many times must i suggest that for the blue to finish in the same position the white may have been hit softer with the topspin compensating
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 20:50
If topspin was available it would not effect the blue balls momentum. The blue ball would still slide on contact and then motion would transfer into forward roll.
By:
Clungehungry
When: 10 Dec 12 20:51
I kind of got there straight away!
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 20:51
LFC.

A cueball doesn't spin in the same direction it is rolling, at least not when struck with a cuetip anyway.  Most players and coaches believe that it does actually overspin.

The test I have presented with the blue ball proves my point.
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 20:53
Bottom line is that if possible to put top spin on the white, that topspin would not transfer topspin to the blue.
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 20:53
LFC.

The topspin does not compensate for anything.  There is no topspin.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 20:55
Pokermaster

you may be correct,maybe not
but you test with the blue ball is flawed and can not prove such
By:
Clungehungry
When: 10 Dec 12 20:55
I would imagine if anything it would transfer backspin, but that effect would be reversed when the blue hit the cushion.
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 20:56
And even if there was topspin it would transfer topspin to the object ball to give it extra energy of motion.Laugh
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 20:56
LFC.

The test is sound, sir.  I guess we will just have to disagree.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 20:57
Angel Gabriel

with respect sir we are not talking about transfering topspin to the blue ..only force
By:
Clungehungry
When: 10 Dec 12 20:57
the reverse surely. Think of cogs.
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 20:57
Yes Clunge. My thoughts were the same that it could transfer drag to the object ball, but in reality the object ball will just slide for most of it`s journey finishing with forward roll.
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 21:00
with respect sir we are not talking about transfering topspin to the blue ..only force

Force can only be transferd through ball to ball power. Or a screw shot with a screw shot with the help of timing.
By:
Angel Gabrial
When: 10 Dec 12 21:01
And follow through^^^
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:01
LFC.

The cueball is rolling, just rolling and nothing else no matter how much one tries to apply topspin.  If the blue ball lands in the same place on two seperate occasions, then both times the cueball must have struck it with equal force.
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:05
* separate.
By:
Clungehungry
When: 10 Dec 12 21:06
There's only one way we can solve this. Get our balls out, attempt a screw, and see if we follow though.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:07
Pokermaster

i agree,but how hard has the cue ball been struck?
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:09
LFC.

It doesn't matter, sir, that is an arbitrary event.
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:09
Providing, of course, one doesn't strike it so hard that the cueball is sliding when it strikes the blue.
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:10
Or airborne.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:10
but how hard the cue ball is struckis directly related to where the blue finishes
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:12
i maintain that your ex. does not allow for the cue ball being struck softer the second time with topspin
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:12
Naturally, but as long as you repeat the action consistantly (the blue landing in the same place) then the test is sound.
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:13
Naturally, but as long as you repeat the action consistently (the blue landing in the same place) then the test is sound.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:13
it may even be to get the blue ball to finish inthe same place you have to strike it softer the 2nd time
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:14
strike the cue ball i mean of course
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:15
The blue ball finishing in the same place ensures that the white has struck the blue with equal force, LFC.

I fail to see how you cannot understand this, sir.  It really does look like you are pulling my leg.
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:18
Let me be clear: a player would not be striking the cueball softer on the second strike.  If you believe this to be the case, sir, then I am afraid you are mistaken.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:18
yes i have not disagreed with you on that point,i feel you are now being disingenous. It is how hard the cue hits the white ball i am suggesting that your experiment does not allow for
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:20
sorry i do disagree when yousay the cue ball has not been struck softer just because the blue finishes in the same place. This is not necessarily so
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:21
I am not being disingenuous.  I specifically addressed that very point in my last post.
By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:22
you have not addressed what allowance the experiment makes for the ball being struck softer the second time
By:
Pokermonster
When: 10 Dec 12 21:24
LFC wrote:

sorry i do disagree when yousay the cue ball has not been struck softer just because the blue finishes in the same place. This is not necessarily so


Well, yes, we do then disagree, sir.  It plainly is the case.  It is a repeatable and reliable exercise.  I am at a loss as to why you believe otherwise.

By:
lfc1971
When: 10 Dec 12 21:26
i will recap..i suggest that there is a possibility that in order for the blue to finish in the same place the 2nd time,if the player applys topspin he must hit it softer than the first time otherwise the blue will go further
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