A friend and I were playing a game of backgammon at £5 per chip won by. The doubling cube applies. Anyway it ended up being £40 a point. The only snag is that our max loss to each other on anything is always £200 - whatever the outcome as the swings in the games we play could be enormous. Also because player A is much better than player B (Player A is a pro) Player A gives Player B 40% of any losses back in every game he wins.
Anyway, Player A (pro) ended up winning by 12 points and so the makeup is £480...60% of this is £288.
Does Player B owe £200 as per the stop loss? or Does Player B owe £120 which is 60% of £200 as £200 was originally the stop loss for any game.
We have the same stop loss. We bet on loads of stuff. The £200 stop loss is not specific to backgammon. If he would have won I would have paid hm £200. I won but we are not sure whether the 40% deduction should be applied to the amount before the stop loss (reducing it to £288 so £200) or after meaning £120.
If the double is declined the player declining loses by the current amount times half the number of pieces he has remaining. Its our own crazy variation.
We have the same stop loss. We bet on loads of stuff. The £200 stop loss is not specific to backgammon. If he would have won I would have paid hm £200. I won but we are not sure whether the 40% deduction should be applied to the amount before the s
On the assumption that the rebate system is made to make the game a level game, then the stop loss should be equally likely to be hit by either of you. Effectively lowering the stop loss to £120 gives you two equalisers for the price of one.
You'll want other opinions than mine before paying, but it seems reasonably clear cut to me tbh.
On the assumption that the rebate system is made to make the game a level game, then the stop loss should be equally likely to be hit by either of you. Effectively lowering the stop loss to £120 gives you two equalisers for the price of one.You'll w
A clearer way to see how unfair it is , if he'd won 8 points (£320) then you'd have owed him £192, no questions asked.
It makes no sense to pay him less for 12 points imo.
A clearer way to see how unfair it is , if he'd won 8 points (£320) then you'd have owed him £192, no questions asked.It makes no sense to pay him less for 12 points imo.
what was the amount owing before the last game was played?
stop loss of £200 = 5 points
you managed to get to 12 points behind, so assuming the pro doubled early last game (perhaps on the first move :D) did you double at some point after that, then get in a mess, he doubles again, and you end up getting tonked for 8 points?
if you were more than 5 points behind before the last game, then was the pro not letting you have a bit of a freeroll at him at the end?
certainly if he was 4 points up before last game and now you want to cap the amount paid to effectively 3 points, that would be absurd, he could not gain anything playing on
what was the amount owing before the last game was played?stop loss of £200 = 5 pointsyou managed to get to 12 points behind, so assuming the pro doubled early last game (perhaps on the first move :D) did you double at some point after that, then ge
Thanks for the replies. We play that if we both roll the same number at the beginning then the dice doubles, this happened twice. and became a £20 a piece game. I doubled to make it £40 to ensure a larger win whe I was slightly ahead when we ended up racing.
This isn't really a backgammon question, as it isn't exactly part of the rules of the game. Its our own handicap system and £/piece gambling system just for the fun of it.
I agree with Lori that he had two handicap fo rthe price of one, and the amount owed should be the full £200. But we agreed to abide by the concensus on the gambling forums.
Thanks for the replies. We play that if we both roll the same number at the beginning then the dice doubles, this happened twice. and became a £20 a piece game. I doubled to make it £40 to ensure a larger win whe I was slightly ahead when we ended
if the loser genuinely believes his stop loss was £120 and the winner thinks it was £200 then there has just been a misunderstanding, so why not settle for the average at £160
my hunch is the loser might be trying to bend the rules a little after losing, but to give benefit of doubt, the initial agreement is clearly ambiguous, otherwise you wouldn't need to let others have a say
given the amount of betting you do together, compromising in the middle at £160, clearing up the rules so it doesn't happen again next time, and staying good friends seems sensible
if the loser genuinely believes his stop loss was £120 and the winner thinks it was £200 then there has just been a misunderstanding, so why not settle for the average at £160my hunch is the loser might be trying to bend the rules a little after l
The 40% is a handicapping system and the £200 is a stop/loss, work out the handicap and then apply the stop loss. Simplies, you lose the maximum £200 on this ocassion, but as said above clarify the rules before the next game and stay friends, and good luck trying to win it back.
The 40% is a handicapping system and the £200 is a stop/loss, work out the handicap and then apply the stop loss. Simplies, you lose the maximum £200 on this ocassion, but as said above clarify the rules before the next game and stay friends, and g
I appreciate the replies. The original post was written by my friend who put it on 2+2, but I thought I would put it here too. We haven't falen out in any way, just trying to find the fairest answer because we didnt stipulate in advance.
I appreciate the replies. The original post was written by my friend who put it on 2+2, but I thought I would put it here too. We haven't falen out in any way, just trying to find the fairest answer because we didnt stipulate in advance.