France 1.31 to 1.39

no idea.

goals price seems high aswell

1) Opening game, so expect a nervy start from the French

2) Romania only conceded 2 goals in qualifying and are likely to be setting out to stick 11 men behind the ball and play for a 0-0, as they will fancy their chances of getting at least one win against the other two opponents in the group

3) If Romania do concede, the format of the tournament (ie 4 of the 3rd placed teams going through) means that it will be in Romania's favour to stick to 11 men behind the ball and play for a 0-1, as again they will fancy their chances of getting 3-4 points against their other two opponents, in which case goal difference will be key

Say hello to the layers. Romania only conceded two in qualifying nerves from the French in the first game. Not much in the move imo

team news leaked ?

Welcome to a non-static market. As opinions/positions come in, the price will bounce around in sync with those(and any movements under double figure percentages are hardly uncommon or "alarming")

Thats over 20% drift on opening price.

Jun 10, 2016 -- 4:16PM, pantsonfire wrote:

Thats over 20% drift on opening price.

No it isn't. It's less than 5%

Could be cos 5 or 6 of the French starting 11  ply their trade in England ??

You'd get 20% more money back at those prices, wouldn't that be classed as a 20% drift?

Really it's .31 out to .39.

France will win with much goals.

In terms of probability:

1.31 = 76.33%
1.39 = 71.94%

This is a 4.39% difference

By your logic a drift from 1.01 to 1.02 would be a 100% drift, which isn't accurate

No wonder people get scared with certain movements, they don't even understand the significance of them {facepalm}

Probably just because its the opening game.

laying France and backing unders, dont expect fireworks in this match.

Billys were laying an even tenner earlier today I suppose some burglars have friends n family lapping all that up

Given that 3rd place can qualify we could see more goals, Easy France win for me & -1.5 on the asians.

over 2,5 at 2 is a good bet, will be 3-0 or 3-1...

third place qualifying means that it is theoretically possible to qualify with 1 point , might mean goals are scarce though

First competitive match for France in 2 years.

Romania only lost once in their last 20 matches or so with about 15 clean sheets

Something on the underdogs for me.

I have a couple of acca's on this. The drift is alarming but the cash out offered is a joke.

Since (and including) 2004, only Ukraine in 2012 have won their opening game as tournament host or co-host

France can get goals but defensively not great , laporte and varane both out , and evra , sagna and koscielny in team, btts for me

far point stroodle but the opposition team in that stat were pretty decent or evenly matched.

Romania have no attacking threat to take advantage of a weak French back line but are well organised and very defensive minded.

France to sneak a 1-0 win.

Ted Brogan 10 Jun 16 16:24 Joined: 29 Jan 06 | Topic/replies: 1,591 | Blogger: Ted Brogan's blog
Jun 10, 2016 -- 4:16PM, pantsonfire wrote:

Thats over 20% drift on opening price.

No it isn't. It's less than 5%

ted, could you please give us an example of a 20% drift on opening price

1.31 = 76.33%
1.78 = 56.33%

i know you didnt ask me but thats the answer

assuming a 100% overound

so what would 1.31 to 1000 be?

76.33% > 0.1%

so the odds were 3/10 and now they are 1000/1 and you are calling that a 76% change in the odds?

76% change in the implied chance of winning.

ted, clacher? any news?

the question didnt mention "the implied chance of winning"

it said give an example where the odds change by 20%

in your world, the odds can never double, is that correct?

sorry was too busy not caring and watchign the football.


yes, odds can not double.  use whatever language you want though it doesnt bother me

well can never increase by 100% but they can double.

6/4 is double 4/1, 40% v 20%

odds can not double?

you up or down on here long term?

clacherholiday2 10 Jun 16 20:10 Joined: 02 Jun 04 | Topic/replies: 6,707 | Blogger: clacherholiday2's blog
well can never increase by 100% but they can double.



wish you were rich and i was your accountant...

game odds at ko are 1.3,  ie you could win 30p for each £,  if it then swings to 0.6 ie, you can win 60p for each pond,  isnt that a 100% swing?

How long have you people been betting? Don't you know that an x percentage change in odds and an x percentage change in the probability of the event occurring, whilst directly related, are categorically not the same thing?

Do you really not know the difference?

your returns increased 100%, your odds didnt

pantsonfire • June 10, 2016 4:16 PM BST
Thats over 20% drift on opening price.

thats where this started  

i take you guys think 4/1 is 100% increase on 2/1?

clacherholiday2 10 Jun 16 20:11 Joined: 02 Jun 04 | Topic/replies: 6,712 | Blogger: clacherholiday2's blog
6/4 is double 4/1, 40% v 20%

for the avoidance of doubt, is the above an example of a 100% change or a 20% change?

4/1 is a 20% swing of odds over 6/4

but you have stated 6/4 is double 4/1. isnt double = 100%?

double isnt 100% no

ok so educate me in your skewed logic that makes odds of 1.3 to 1.4 a 20% increase.  what would you consider as a 50% increase?