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http://beta.betfair.com/football/market?id=1.103606406
Can anyone explain to me why the two teams with 35 goals are both on 2/1?
Shouldn't they be virtually 1? Because they're both out, neither can score more goals, and the closest to them and still in the tournament would need 11 to overtake (Munich).
Have I got this completely wrong?
Tom
Can anyone explain to me why the two teams with 35 goals are both on 2/1?
Shouldn't they be virtually 1? Because they're both out, neither can score more goals, and the closest to them and still in the tournament would need 11 to overtake (Munich).
Have I got this completely wrong?
Tom
Show More
Have I got this completely wrong?
errrm yep...2 is not 2/1 its evens
errrm yep...2 is not 2/1 its evens
My mistake, even so, why is it?! I mean, what happens if they draw? (inevitably, seeing as they're both out).
is it the dead heat rule.
sorry you will need somebody who knows what it is to explain it.
only i have just seen it mentioned before.
sorry you will need somebody who knows what it is to explain it.
only i have just seen it mentioned before.
if you back them both say
£5 madrid
£5 barca
you win £10 so you basically get your money back minus comission
£5 madrid
£5 barca
you win £10 so you basically get your money back minus comission
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