Football
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http://beta.betfair.com/football/market?id=1.103606406
Can anyone explain to me why the two teams with 35 goals are both on 2/1?
Shouldn't they be virtually 1? Because they're both out, neither can score more goals, and the closest to them and still in the tournament would need 11 to overtake (Munich).
Have I got this completely wrong?
Tom
Can anyone explain to me why the two teams with 35 goals are both on 2/1?
Shouldn't they be virtually 1? Because they're both out, neither can score more goals, and the closest to them and still in the tournament would need 11 to overtake (Munich).
Have I got this completely wrong?
Tom
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Have I got this completely wrong?
errrm yep...2 is not 2/1 its evens  |
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My mistake, even so, why is it?! I mean, what happens if they draw? (inevitably, seeing as they're both out).
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is it the dead heat rule.
sorry you will need somebody who knows what it is to explain it. only i have just seen it mentioned before. |
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if you back them both say
£5 madrid £5 barca you win £10 so you basically get your money back minus comission |
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But what if you only back one?
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Helpful. Thanks.
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