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PM only has some savings... a house and a job?
PM only has some savings... a house and a job?
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Replies: 92
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why did dave say jimmy carr doing same thing was morally wrong
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What tax has David Cameron dodged, name one?
the unit trust itself avoided uk tax to generate bigger profits. You think they are set up offshore for reasons other than tax avoidance, when most directors are resident in uk? Its legal, like owning shares in facebook or starbucks is legal. Its politically damaging for politicians like say, i dont know, the Prime minister ok UK to profit personally from these schemes whilst at same time condemning them as dodgy and morally wrong. Compounded by taking 5 days to come clean whilst lecturing others on transparency. |
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"2that 20k profit is most you could return to uk without incurring capital gains tax, nice coincidence that he cashed out under the threshold or was there more money in there?"
I mean wtf is this about. You don't hit the threshold then suddenly have to pay tax on all of it, you pay on the bit above the threshold so being a bit under it is completely irrelevant, and it was all declared anyway. But you don't like cameron, so any sense talked on this matter is in one ear and out the other. And what the blazes has jimmy carr got to do with anything? Are lefties so gormless you think every single thing that happens abroad to do with tax must be the same thing and all bad because it's in a hot country or something? That sums it up doesn't it. So like if I buy a car in jamaica, that's the same as buying a pineapple in trinidad? They are both buying, and far away, so I presume they are. Carr was doing something like running his entire income through a dodgy company to avoice income tax, what in gods name does have to do with buying a unit trust and paying the appropriate taxes on it? |
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"the unit trust itself avoided uk tax to generate bigger profits." Prove it.
And if it DID, this unit trust he bought into, that you could buy into, and it DID increase its profits, this would be expressed, that were declared to HMRC, that David Cameron then paid. Your move. |
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*"this would be expressed as higher dividends"
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lefties big day out. We had a General Election - they don';t like the result - so bore us all to death.
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You asked which was avoided, i told you, uk corporation tax. Silly to think Daves tax on his dividends makes up for loss of uk tax on the whole company
re the capital gains threshold early, you dont have to declare under the threshold capital gains to hmrc, so another example of dave flying low and under the radar to even his own tax man. dave hasnt published his tax return even after repeatedly saying he will, so you saying he declared it is nonsense. jimmy carr is relevant for dave being a hypocrite in condemning others for what he done hiself |
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"Flying under the radar", well the tax man must have been pretty stupid to not know he owned the shares as he was paying the tax on the dividends from them. You're just talking complete sh*t now, and you know it. And how do you know he didn't declare, but the total for that year was under? Not paying CGT on them is not the same as them being off the radar. If he fills out a tax return, and his affairs may have been complex enough to require this, I'd think they WERE declared.
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he has said he made 20k ish profits due to the panama leak, he paid no tax on the dividends as he was under the threshold, no need to declare (facepalm).
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Jesus ****ing christ you don't even know the difference between dividends/income and capital growth.
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Here's a quote from the guardian, famous for its entrenched defence of Cameron: "He paid income tax on the dividends but there was no capital gains tax payable". Note: they are two different things.
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Admitting it had been “a difficult few days”, the prime minister said he held the shares with his wife, Samantha, from 1997 and during his time as leader of the opposition. They were sold in January 2010 for £31,500, making a profit of £19,000.
Cameron said he paid income tax on the dividends but there was no capital gains tax payable Cameron is talking about paing income tax on dividends since 97 and then selling the asset in 2010 and thus generating a capital gain below cgt threshold 20kish and as the disposal was less than 4 * threshold (40kish) under reporting or declaration limit aswell |
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What's your point? I've already been over this? What's your point?
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