Peter Parkers brother 13 Dec 19:13


wykhamist
The point is: What is a reasonable spread around 0.5 for a given number of hands.

If this is your question - What is a reasonable spread around 0.5 for a given number of random hands. Then your answers may seem valid.

But you are not analysing random hands, they will just be showdown hands and these are not random. E.G if I wanted to I could play some HU poker and take the worst 30% of starting hands to showdown and fold the top 70% of hands before showdown. In this case you wouldn't expect each players hands to win 50% of the time.

this is all you need to know IMO

the sample size is irrelevant if all he is asking is a simple question to the sample he is using.

of course, it is too small to be a definitive "experiment" but his querstion is the same regardless.

imo that is "why am i not winning half my hands less the allowed % of fluctuation"

this is explained by a style pf play. some people win more than half by playing tighter, or they lose many smaller pots but win more of the bigger ones coz they are playing looser...

anyway, to be concerned with these stats you would have to be "flipping" for it to actually mean anything and that would never happen, then the low sample size argument could be a lot stronger also.