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Millwall 66
12 Nov 13 05:01
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Date Joined: 08 Jan 06
| Topic/replies: 234 | Blogger: Millwall 66's blog
I layed over 41 pts in the Miami v Tampa game.. there was exactly 41pts.. why have I not won, as there was not over 41pts ?? might sound thick but don't make sense to me.. anyone ??
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Report ClayDavis November 12, 2013 8:00 AM GMT
It's a "push" similar to blackjack in a casino. No one wins. It's like laying a team -3 and they win by 3 - they didn't win by more than 3 so you should win right, no it's a "push" - no one wins. 40 points u win, 42 points u lose, 41 points is "pushed"
Report Millwall 66 November 12, 2013 12:34 PM GMT
Cheers Clay.. yeah I know the push rules, but no mention of them in that game's rules.. layed 1.01 with 9 mins left when it was on 41pts & thought I had had a touch.. yet in fact I could never have won.
Report db1974 November 12, 2013 1:11 PM GMT
Standard US Sports rules
Report HARRY22 November 12, 2013 3:21 PM GMT
If it worked as you thought it would work nobody would ever back,they would just lay the same under/over selection...if only it was that easy. Cool
Report sideshowbob November 13, 2013 11:57 PM GMT
if there isnt a market for what ends up winning, the lot is void. unless it specifically says otherwise. ie "others on request" etc. thats generally the rule of betting isnt it? if theres a market for over 41 points and one for under 41 points. if theres 41 points in the game, neither bet wins. so if you win with your bet, who loses? cant believe you really thought you had a winning bet. or are you angling here? Plain
Report DirkDiggler November 14, 2013 1:58 PM GMT
There wasn't under 41 pts either...


Laugh
Report drewboy November 14, 2013 2:46 PM GMT
Suerly a Cockney Fisherman on the loose here?
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