I layed over 41 pts in the Miami v Tampa game.. there was exactly 41pts.. why have I not won, as there was not over 41pts ?? might sound thick but don't make sense to me.. anyone ??
It's a "push" similar to blackjack in a casino. No one wins. It's like laying a team -3 and they win by 3 - they didn't win by more than 3 so you should win right, no it's a "push" - no one wins. 40 points u win, 42 points u lose, 41 points is "pushed"
It's a "push" similar to blackjack in a casino. No one wins. It's like laying a team -3 and they win by 3 - they didn't win by more than 3 so you should win right, no it's a "push" - no one wins. 40 points u win, 42 points u lose, 41 points is "pushe
Cheers Clay.. yeah I know the push rules, but no mention of them in that game's rules.. layed 1.01 with 9 mins left when it was on 41pts & thought I had had a touch.. yet in fact I could never have won.
Cheers Clay.. yeah I know the push rules, but no mention of them in that game's rules.. layed 1.01 with 9 mins left when it was on 41pts & thought I had had a touch.. yet in fact I could never have won.
if there isnt a market for what ends up winning, the lot is void. unless it specifically says otherwise. ie "others on request" etc. thats generally the rule of betting isnt it? if theres a market for over 41 points and one for under 41 points. if theres 41 points in the game, neither bet wins. so if you win with your bet, who loses? cant believe you really thought you had a winning bet. or are you angling here?
if there isnt a market for what ends up winning, the lot is void. unless it specifically says otherwise. ie "others on request" etc. thats generally the rule of betting isnt it? if theres a market for over 41 points and one for under 41 points. if th