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Millwall 66
12 Nov 13 05:01
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Date Joined: 08 Jan 06
| Topic/replies: 234 | Blogger: Millwall 66's blog
I layed over 41 pts in the Miami v Tampa game.. there was exactly 41pts.. why have I not won, as there was not over 41pts ?? might sound thick but don't make sense to me.. anyone ??

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Replies: 7
By:
ClayDavis
When: 12 Nov 13 08:00
It's a "push" similar to blackjack in a casino. No one wins. It's like laying a team -3 and they win by 3 - they didn't win by more than 3 so you should win right, no it's a "push" - no one wins. 40 points u win, 42 points u lose, 41 points is "pushed"
By:
Millwall 66
When: 12 Nov 13 12:34
Cheers Clay.. yeah I know the push rules, but no mention of them in that game's rules.. layed 1.01 with 9 mins left when it was on 41pts & thought I had had a touch.. yet in fact I could never have won.
By:
db1974
When: 12 Nov 13 13:11
Standard US Sports rules
By:
HARRY22
When: 12 Nov 13 15:21
If it worked as you thought it would work nobody would ever back,they would just lay the same under/over selection...if only it was that easy. Cool
By:
sideshowbob
When: 13 Nov 13 23:57
if there isnt a market for what ends up winning, the lot is void. unless it specifically says otherwise. ie "others on request" etc. thats generally the rule of betting isnt it? if theres a market for over 41 points and one for under 41 points. if theres 41 points in the game, neither bet wins. so if you win with your bet, who loses? cant believe you really thought you had a winning bet. or are you angling here? Plain
By:
DirkDiggler
When: 14 Nov 13 13:58
There wasn't under 41 pts either...


Laugh
By:
drewboy
When: 14 Nov 13 14:46
Suerly a Cockney Fisherman on the loose here?
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