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01 Oct 14
16:53
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Date Joined:
27 Sep 11
The 4.30 at Salisbury was a two horse race. Bookies prices 1-2 & 6-4.
For a minute it looked like Richard Hughes' mount, the 6-4 shot was not going to go into the stalls.
Using the standard rule 4 deduction of 40c in the pound to winning bets, this would have meant a 20c in the pound deduction to winning bets, which equates to a 3-10 winner.....even though he would have literally had nothing to beat!!
Would bookies have tried to declare it a void race? Or can anyone remember this ever happening?
In my opinion, it would simply have been a non runner, and some very annoyed bookies.
For a minute it looked like Richard Hughes' mount, the 6-4 shot was not going to go into the stalls.
Using the standard rule 4 deduction of 40c in the pound to winning bets, this would have meant a 20c in the pound deduction to winning bets, which equates to a 3-10 winner.....even though he would have literally had nothing to beat!!
Would bookies have tried to declare it a void race? Or can anyone remember this ever happening?
In my opinion, it would simply have been a non runner, and some very annoyed bookies.
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i seem to remember a 3horse claimer about 2y ago at STH there was two 1/1 shots and the rag was 25/1, one of the j/favs was taken out 10mins before the start which meant that the other 1/1 shot was 1/2 with the 50% rule 4, i was in the bookies at the time and was very slow to take adv of the rule 4 , the other 1/1 shot won at a starting price of around 1/10, i was kicking myself after the race
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