Yep - but applied to what? My logic is telling me that these should be two separate deductions applied to different prices
For £100 staked, 80% applied to the orgiginal price is £360 deduction But once the second market is formed my winnings are set at 2.7/1 (450 less 40%) Why should the second 40% deduction not be applied to that price rather than the original.(1.62 to 1)
Not saying this is how it does work - just how it seems like it should.
Yep - but applied to what?My logic is telling me that these should be two separate deductions applied to different pricesFor £100 staked, 80% applied to the orgiginal price is £360 deductionBut once the second market is formed my winnings are set
Rule 4s are applied cumulative from the time you place the bet ie, 40p plus 40p again to the price taken when the bet was struck. Your price is never adjusted, just reduced in this way by the reduction factors, however many there might be over the day.
Rule 4s are applied cumulative from the time you place the bet ie, 40p plus 40p again to the price taken when the bet was struck. Your price is never adjusted, just reduced in this way by the reduction factors, however many there might be over the da
heres one..i had a bet yesterday .at 11/10.the horse won at 9/10 sp with a 20 p in the £ deduction.i was paid 11/10 - 20% as im told 11/10 was biggest price and thats what its settled at??
heres one..i had a bet yesterday .at 11/10.the horse won at 9/10 sp with a 20 p in the £ deduction.i was paid 11/10 - 20% as im told 11/10 was biggest price and thats what its settled at??