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80p in the pound I guess ...so you be paid out around 10/11 approx?
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Yep - but applied to what?
My logic is telling me that these should be two separate deductions applied to different prices For £100 staked, 80% applied to the orgiginal price is £360 deduction But once the second market is formed my winnings are set at 2.7/1 (450 less 40%) Why should the second 40% deduction not be applied to that price rather than the original.(1.62 to 1) Not saying this is how it does work - just how it seems like it should. |
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rules are different for some bookmakers, read the small print, majority will apply rule 4 at time of bet, so rule 4 would apply at 11/8 and 3/1.
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Rule 4s are applied cumulative from the time you place the bet ie, 40p plus 40p again to the price taken when the bet was struck. Your price is never adjusted, just reduced in this way by the reduction factors, however many there might be over the day.
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You are getting a fantastic bet in any case, so I wouldn't complain.
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Not complaining Dave - one of the two bookies settled it my way and it made me realise I didn't know the right answer.
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65p
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heres one..i had a bet yesterday .at 11/10.the horse won at 9/10 sp with a 20 p in the £ deduction.i was paid 11/10 - 20% as im told 11/10 was biggest price and thats what its settled at??
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25p original market followed by 40p deduction to the new market
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64p deduction per £
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25p original market followed by 40p deduction to the new market
How do you arrive at that when an 11/8 chance has come out of the original market |