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how do u measure ur edge?

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By:
henok
When: 07 Dec 11 11:28
that said
ror i  dont understand why u use 0.95. if that is to cancel out the comission. then ur edge would be
net profit taking a sample of two and one win >  2-(1*2.1)*0.95=-0.005
total liablity or turnover (dont understnad the turnover definition yet) >2
edge -0.005/2 calculate this result
By:
FINE AS FROG HAIR
When: 07 Dec 11 11:30
Oh sorry.
I thought we were all on here to learn things that might be some PRACTICAL assistance to our gambling efforts,
My apologies.
I just hate time wasters and ****s.
Btw they never make any money either.
So think about it, if you're seriously thinking of making money out of gambling.
Why don't you try to respond to the points I'm making in a constructive manner, if you're really interested in trying to make some sort of useful point on gambling ?.
Not being nasty here, but I am finding this all very dishearteningly pointless.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 11:31
henok: Odds were 2.1, with the stake of 1, sorry if I made it sound like 2.1 was the stake.

by "an evens shot at 2.1" I meant something priced at 2.1 but real (true) odds of 2.0
By:
henok
When: 07 Dec 11 11:32
oky no i got it
By:
henok
When: 07 Dec 11 11:32
now
By:
henok
When: 07 Dec 11 11:35

Dec 7, 2011 -- 11:30AM, FINE AS FROG HAIR wrote:


Oh sorry.I thought we were all on here to learn things that might be some PRACTICAL assistance to our gambling efforts,My apologies.I just hate time wasters and ****s.Btw they never make any money either.So think about it, if you're seriously thinking of making money out of gambling.Why don't you try to respond to the points I'm making in a constructive manner, if you're really interested in trying to make some sort of useful point on gambling ?.Not being nasty here, but I am finding this all very dishearteningly pointless.


the guy has clearly menetioned that he doesnt intend to make money from gambling wants only to discuss, then let him discuss. does it hurt u to see him discussing

By:
FINE AS FROG HAIR
When: 07 Dec 11 11:35
ror
If you want to quantify your edge for Kelly staking purposes, then just measure it the way Kelly did in creating his theory. as said apples and apples.
Just google it. It's all in the public domain.
It's not really a debatable point is it ?
Unless you're nowing questioning the theory undelying Kelly?
If so, then wrong post, isn't it ?
And I'm not angry, just fed up and tbh disappointed in all these pointless academic meanderings.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 11:35
FAFH:

I've been as constructive as possible. And I hope being able to calculate your edge is practical.

Please if there's anything you don't understand in my posts don't feel bad about asking for clarification, I often garble off into nonsense (both to a layman and to a maths geek), my communication skills are poor.

I'll work that example again.

Stake 1@2.1, bet loses, lose 1.
Stake 1@2.1, bet wins, gain 1.1*0.95 (commission).

Net profit (total profit from bets won - losses): 0.045.
turnover (total profit from bets won): 1.045

Edge = net profit / gross profit = 4.3%.

Practically you'll have a lot more samples.

Knowing you have a 4.3% edge with 5% commission is useful. Not only that but if you record all your bets individually you could create a spreadsheet where you look to see if you still make money at 6%, 7% commission. This is practical if betfair change their terms.
By:
FINE AS FROG HAIR
When: 07 Dec 11 11:37
Ok henok.
Discuss away.
But don't expect people who want to learn anything about how to succeed practically at gambling to get involved in any way.
Mental masturbation if ever I saw an example.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 11:38
FAFH: Doing it how kelly did requires knowing the true odds of a future event. You cannot possibly know that, so the best way to try to estimate that is to take your edge from all your previous bets and estimate that this is likely your edge for your current bet.


Otherwise you're just guessing. "Ooh this is at 1.9, I reckon it's probably a 1.8 shot".

That's a guess.

"It's at 1.9, and my selection is made similar to my history of selecting, and my history shows I've roughly a 4% edge, so true odds should be closer to ..." is more practical, and probably more profitable long term.
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 11:41
ror -

What a I doing "wrong" as my ROI calculations indicate 17.54% on a BACKING STRATEGY, in WIN market (HORSE RACING) and 14.52% in PLACE LAYING market ?
============================================================================

STATS on BACKING to level stakes are :-

ROI    17.54487179
   
NUMBER   
BETS    1716
   
TOTAL   
BF SP   
ODDS    8710.59
   
AVERAGE   
ODDS   
PER BET    5.076101399
   
   
NUMBER   
LOSING   
BETS    1304
   
NUMBER   
WINNING   
BETS    412
   
   
   
STRIKE-RATE    24.00932401
======================================================================================

STATS on LAYING to fixed liability in PLAce MARKET :-

ROI    14.52171435
   
NUMBER   
BETS    1174
   
TOTAL   
BF SP   
ODDS    -1154.83
   
AVERAGE   
ODDS   
PER BET    -0.98367121
   
   
NUMBER   
LOSING   
BETS    -540
   
NUMBER   
WINNING   
BETS    634
   
   
   
STRIKE-RATE    54.00340716
======================================================================================



ROI .......surely is a strong indicator of "edge" over so many bets?
By:
FINE AS FROG HAIR
When: 07 Dec 11 11:43
ror
I have no problem in understanding your calculations.
I just have no use for them, and can see no use for them for others in the real world of gambling.
But if it pulls your chain to fiddle around endlessly thinking about these things, instead of getting out there and dfoing some gambling, then go for it.
It's a free world.
I have spent years surrounding by extremely intelligent boffins ( yes at one stage I did work in finance) and I came away totally and utterly unimpressed by either their common sense, or more worryingly their actual bottom line contribution.
By:
FINE AS FROG HAIR
When: 07 Dec 11 11:46
ror
I can't stress enough that this is nothing personal to you.
It is just a general feeling and attitude I have.
I really can't believe it when people( eg henok in his last post) seem to take irt all so personally.
It's just a point of view.
Take it or leave it.
But don't whinge that someone is being an @rseh0le in expressing it.
By:
FINE AS FROG HAIR
When: 07 Dec 11 11:47
Not his last post, the one a few before.
Whatever.
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 11:49
ror - Selections are based on "VALUE" and using where horses are RANKED in ratings and their odds. Only using top 3 in market, for BACKING or LAYING selections.


EG in a horse in RANKED 3rd top rated, I trust the system is "correct" generally on rating a race, and take its true odds at 2-1. If the horse is 9-4 shot it is BACKED.

For PLACE LAYING it has to be outside top 3 rated......and at VALUE odds. This is restricted to top 3 in the market. For example if it is 12 runner race and the 2nd fav at 5-2 but is RANKED 5th top rated ( I take this as a 4-1 shot in true chances), then it is an automatic lay in place market etc.
====================================================================================

You might say....I'm "guessing" on the TRUE ODDS........but the system generally gets it "right" on how horses fare in top 3 of market.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 11:49
IronMan:

It doesn't look like you're doing anything wrong.

In your backing example your edge (naively calculated without details on every bet) is:

strikerate-1/(average odds)

(Assuming these are decimal odds so 2.0 would be evens)

This equals:

(412 / (412 + 1 304)) - (1 / 5.076101399) = 0.0430916593

So that's a 4.3% edge, which is huge. (Roulette has a 3.2% edge and the house cleans up).

The laying example is more complicated, because you'd need to convert your lay odds into an equivalent ("backing to lose") odds.

I'm guessing here, but does that -0.9836 mean that on average you were laying 1.98 shots?

If that were the case, your edge in here in the laying case would be 3.5%.

As I said upthread, it's probably useful to put confidence intervals around that.
By:
henok
When: 07 Dec 11 11:51
FAFH sorry if my comment was offensive as well. i post quite often in fotball threadsWink. my point was, u were giving him repeated reminders of him being overly obssesive with his analysis. if u comented it on it once or twice oky, but as much as u do it seems personal. anyways apologies for my reaction as well
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 11:53
Thanks ror.....and YES  -0.9836 is BF odds 1.9836......

It may be "naive" ....but ROI has to be the strong indicator of whether you have an edge or not.....but thanks for converting it to "edge" mathematically.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 11:54
DFIRCONMAN:

Finding VALUE is fine, and "guessing" isn't a problem there. (And you're not guessing, you're doing more research than the average RP reader!)

You know you have an edge, knowing if you have one or not is not a problem. I was only tackling the issue of quantifying it, which is important for kelley but I would guess other staking plans too.

If you saw that 4-1 shot and it was 5-2 would you really lay it all the way down to close to 4-1?

Or would you just take as much as you can at 5/2 and be happy?
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 11:55
On BACKING STATS......AVERAGE ODDSPER BET    5.076101399........is at BF ODDS 6.07 etc
By:
henok
When: 07 Dec 11 11:56
ROIConfused. is that the same as profit / turnover
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 11:59
DFCIRONMAN: I would argue ROI is more important than edge, because it takes into account both edge and staking.
By:
Beat The OverRound
When: 07 Dec 11 12:02
I'm with Frog Hair,
We are not talking quantum physics here or the relational velocity of a black hole in hyperspace.
You really won't solve real world gambling topics with a text book.

For starters, turnover is not your total liability across all bets, both those that won and those that lost. (Total amount staked.)
Liability should not be used to calculate turnover, you can't calculate turnover based on risk. That's highly misleading.
Turnover is simply, whether backing or laying, total amount staked.

Turnover is not your gross winnings. (income)
That is your profit.

I know some businesses like to distort the figures by caliming turnover is capital including profit, but that's for a different agenda. But none of them calculate based on risk, not even stockmarket trades.
Risk is something that is not there to calculate unless you have actually borne that risk in your figures. Ergo, it is redundant to the calculation.

If I buy a house for $250,000 cash and sell it for $300,000 cash and had no insurance, I don't say I outlayed $500,000 to make $50,000 (because it could have burned down or been flattened by a tornado).
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:04
henok: That does seem to rather undermine my earlier posts. Happy

"True" edge (rather than just the estimates we are calculating) actually doesn't take into account how much you stake, unless you consider that part of your edge (i.e. you consider that part of what makes you a winner.) therefore shouldn't really be taking into account money won/lost, but if you're level staking then the two shouldn't be far off each other.

The ROI takes into account commission tho which I realise I forgot to do for IronMan, but a 4% edge level staking is more than enough to withstand a 5% commission.
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 12:05
On the 4-1 shot.....as it is say a 12 runner race and it is RANKED 5th........it is what I call...above the line ( the line being 50%+1 of field size).

If it is above the line, but outside the top 3 RANKED horses, then the VALUE has to be "clear" to me....which is subjective.....The example given was a clear LAY in PLACE market. If it was ranked 4th, then it then becomes a 3-1 shot in true odds ( my "guess" etc).......and it is borderline VALUE.  The further down the RANKING order it is the greater the true odds become.......and the more VALUE there is in the LAY.


Now you might argue that using KELLY , certainly on BACKS, is worth considering using on PLACE LAYS.......the more VALUE there is etc etc

However, as it was purely a STATISTICAL exercise re the STATS above......then doing them to LEVEL STAKES is important for STATS comparison purposes.

I know that when I start to use system in NEW YEAR that the question re KELLY calaculations is one I seriously MUST address on whether it should be used or not. PROBABLY INTIALLY I WON'T USE IT!
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:06
BTO if you think your profit is all the winning bets you've made without taking into account all the losing bets you've ever made, no wonder you "beat the overround".

Also in the first case,
a) I didn't use it because I don't like the definition.
B) You say I'm wrong then produce exactly the same definition! i.e. total amount staked. Amount staked IS your liability on each bet.
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 12:07
ror - The figures above have been calculated AFER COMMISSION at 5%........
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 12:07
AFTER
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:07
IRONMAN: I prefer level staking to kelly too, both as you say because it's easier to run stats on, and also because it's too easy to become overconfident with kelly, which leads to overestimating your edge and therefore overstaking.
By:
Beat The OverRound
When: 07 Dec 11 12:11
Ror, I never said profit is all the winning bets you had.
You said that.
There is turnover.
There is profit.
There is profit on turnover.

They are seperate entities.

Your winning are your profit after deducting
your total turnover.

That's cash outlayed to gain the profit.
Nothing to do with winning bets included.
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 12:12
henok 07 Dec 11 11:56 
ROIConfused. is that the same as profit / turnover
=============================================================================

Net Profit over Turnover.......re BACKS....and NET PROFIT / STAKING LIABILITY


However, this is not bets to trade ...back bets made and left to stand til finish....etc
By:
Beat The OverRound
When: 07 Dec 11 12:16
For clarity:

Total stakes
Total return
Total profit
Profit on turnover

Liability doesn't come into it, because you already
included it in the return if it happened.
If it didn't happen, it shouldn't be included.
Just as the potential 1000/1 winner never happened
that you could have claimed!
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 12:23
For LAYING though it is the TOTAL STAKING LIABILITY for = TURNOVER ..
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:25
BTO:

Profit is Income - Expenses.

Income is all your winning bets.
Expenses is all your losing bets.

That Income is all the profit from each of your winning bets.
That Expenses is the stakes of all your losing bets.

If you're getting confused about using profit twice, you could think of it as gross profit and net profit, although that's not strictly the case.

I'm saying turnover should be that income.

Put it this way, if you put a tenner on at 5/1, what do you consider your turnover to be, what do you consider your income to be?

Would you put a tenner into expenses and 60 into profit, or would you simply stick 50 into profit?

I think here we have a clash of old school (odds and "returns" etc) and new school (decimals, profit vs loss).

If you want you can count turnover as all the stakes you've made, both winning and losing, but if you do do that you should count returned stakes as well as profit in your ROI.


In other words, you place two bets at 5/1, one wins, one loses.


In my world, your income is 5, your profit is 4, your expenses is 1.

In your world your income is 6, your profit is 4 and your expenses is 2.

I can see arguments for calculating it either way, which is why I gave both options in my original "what is turnover" post.

As for laying, well personally I see laying as backing to lose, so it's just backing and can be calculated the same way, you just need to formulate the equivalent "to lose" odds.
By:
DFCIRONMAN
When: 07 Dec 11 12:29
RETURNS is word that you should be using re "winning bets"
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:33
I agree but we need clarification: If I bet a quid at 2.1, then 1.1 is my profit, 2.1 is my return in a betting shop sense, but 1.1 is my return in a "return on investment" sense.
By:
Beat The OverRound
When: 07 Dec 11 12:35
For LAYING though it is the TOTAL STAKING LIABILITY for = TURNOVER ..

That's a common way of measuring it.
But it's not accurate.
Your liability will be included in the return
or loss if it happened.
For laying, it should be total profit divided by
total stake is the profit on turnover.

Let me give an example.
If I lay the field to $100 liability.
I have no chance of losing $100.
The most I've ever lost is around $79.00
I simply cannot lose the full $100.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:38
If you lay 1 horse to a liability of 100 then you can lose 100.

If you back multiple horses or lay multiple horses then it gets far more complicated, in which case you probably need to just consider max liability.
By:
Beat The OverRound
When: 07 Dec 11 12:40
Ror,

Profit is Income - Expenses.
Income is all your winning bets.
Expenses is all your losing bets.


Maybe the confusion lies between ROI and POT.
I don't know.
But for a business profit is income minus expenses.
For betting, it's income minus total stakes.
Losing bets are redundant as they are included in your income.
No need to count it twice.
By:
ror
When: 07 Dec 11 12:51
How are losing bets included in your income?

As I said, I can see the appeal of both methods of calculating ROI.

You could say that if you had £1000, split it 100 ways, went out put 100 bets on, then looked at your returns from those bets then that is the ROI.

And that works well, but then you surely need to take the stakes into your returns.

Personally I see it as a more organic profit/cost. There's no chance you'll lose all 1000 bets so really the 'investment' is how much money you need to spend on losing bets to generate the winning ones.

I realise I'm probably going against convention here, which is again why I provided my first defintion of turnover which is all your liabilties (stakes).

So yeah, use profit/stakes but personally I think that is old fashioned and you can be more aggressive about what your ROI is.
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