if there are three football matches being played one after each other and the odds were 2 to 1 for the home win and 2 to 1 for the draw and 2 to1 for the away win. all equaling 33.333 chance of any particular result happening. what would be the percentage chance of say no single home win with the 3 match bets placed before the first game kicked off? knowing that at the start of each game there is only a 33.333chance of a win. so betting on all 3 games at only 1 chance in 3 of winning would equal to what percentage?
maybe in simpler layman terms that more will understand , if each team is 3.0 to win then they're 1.5 not to win so 1.5 x 1.5 x 1.5 = 3.375 expressed as a percentage 100/3.375 = 29.6%
Longer winded but more bookmaking explained.
maybe in simpler layman terms that more will understand , if each team is 3.0 to win then they're 1.5 not to win so 1.5 x 1.5 x 1.5 = 3.375 expressed as a percentage 100/3.375 = 29.6%Longer winded but more bookmaking explained.
Haydon and I am 223 .. ok you two .. what are your odds . 223 what made me give up bookmaking .. Betfair , travel , old age ., mid week meetings take a look on your tv .. about 200 hundered punters .. betting in £20 quids ... and other reasons .....
Haydon and I am 223 .. ok you two .. what are your odds .223 what made me give up bookmaking .. Betfair , travel , old age ., mid week meetings take a look on your tv .. about 200 hun
Hayden and 223 .. Come on you hot shots What are your odds ... dont tell me you collect trollies at Tescos ... and you will back to me when your shift is over ....... about 5.00 pm ..
Hayden and 223 .. Come on you hot shots What are your odds ... dont tell me you collect trollies at Tescos ... and you will back to me when your shift is over ....... about 5.00 pm .
Hayden ... So your frigtened .. what are you scared of . I want a Mans answer Then we will leave it at that ...... its ok to come on here and rubbish a fellow poster ... without putting up your views .
Hayden ... So your frigtened .. what are you scared of . I want a Mans answer Then we will leave it at that ...... its ok to come on here and rubbish a fellow poster ... without putting
In all honesty i've no clue what on earth you're talking about tbh , the original question was posted by AMADEUS and my response was the following , which was behind some earlier correct answers but thought it might be beneficial explained in a bookmaking language rather than a mathematical one.....
HAYDEN 15 Dec 12:25 maybe in simpler layman terms that more will understand , if each team is 3.0 to win then they're 1.5 not to win so 1.5 x 1.5 x 1.5 = 3.375 expressed as a percentage 100/3.375 = 29.6%
Longer winded but more bookmaking explained.
No idea what your rant is about tbh but that said cannot make any sense of your responses either . AMADEUS has his correct answer from several sources so for me the thread is now dead and buried.
In all honesty i've no clue what on earth you're talking about tbh , the original question was posted by AMADEUS and my response was the following , which was behind some earlier correct answers but thought it might be beneficial explained in a bookm
Hayden re Mozart .. 2/1 home , 2/1 draw , 2/1 away, = 99% when was the last time .. or first time .. you could have them odds .......... never. But to come back to you .. you said ive no idea ..... zip agrees with you ... you have no idea ... lets leave it at that ......
Hayden re Mozart .. 2/1 home , 2/1 draw , 2/1 away, = 99% when was the last time .. or first time .. you could have them odds .......... never.But to come back to you .. you said ive n
Whether the odds are ever available is of no relevance whatsoever , it was the question AMADEUS MOZART posed and whether it was hypothetical or not i've no idea and indeed you would have to ask him that one , it was a simply a correct response to an honest question of which the accuracy of the answer given of 29.6% cannot be disputed.
Whether the odds are ever available is of no relevance whatsoever , it was the question AMADEUS MOZART posed and whether it was hypothetical or not i've no idea and indeed you would have to ask him that one , it was a simply a correct response to an
zipper, HAYDEN's answer is obviously correct. Your reply is a bit dotty old chap(literally). You do have some previous with disputing some probability calculations of mine, when I was operating under another nom-de-plume. I just didn't fancy wasting anybody's time again.
zipper, HAYDEN's answer is obviously correct. Your reply is a bit dotty old chap(literally). You do have some previous with disputing some probability calculations of mine, when I was operating under another nom-de-plume. I just didn't fancy wast
3 homes or 3 aways or 3 draws will happen 26.9 % of the time
That wasn't the original question.
It was: what is the probability of none of the three matches being a home win.
29.6% is correct, I'm afraid.
3 homes or 3 aways or 3 draws will happen 26.9 % of the time That wasn't the original question.It was: what is the probability of none of the three matches being a home win.29.6% is correct, I'm afraid.