A bag has 2 red balls and 2 black balls. If 2 balls are picked at random the chances are 66.7% that the balls are different colours. My 10yo son was convinced it was 50/50 so I challenged him to a free bet, takind two red and two silver baubles off the xmas tree and putting them into a bag.
I then gave him 5 £1 coins and myself 5 £1 coins. Every time the 2 baubles were different colours he gave me £1 and every time they were the same colour I gave him £1. The winner was the first person to get all 10 £1 coins which they then kept. Can someone tell me what were his chances of winning?
very slim imo, worked out from 5-0 to 8-3 and the chances of those 4 results add up to about 1.4%. looking at the direction of the figures chance of winning can't be much higher than 4%
very slim imo, worked out from 5-0 to 8-3 and the chances of those 4 results add up to about 1.4%. looking at the direction of the figures chance of winning can't be much higher than 4%
3% is correct (more precisely 3.03recurring, or 1/33), but I don't have a mathematical proof as to why.
The problem is a 1-dimensional random walk, with p = 2/3, and with sticky boundaries.
3% is correct (more precisely 3.03recurring, or 1/33), but I don't have a mathematical proof as to why.The problem is a 1-dimensional random walk, with p = 2/3, and with sticky boundaries.
From the central position, the chance of 5-0 is 32/243 and the chance of 0-5 is 1/243, which indicates the 32:1 ratio of winning that I found by exhaustive calculation.
What I am struggling to do is to explain why this ratio is the actual result, as after 5 trials the distribution of outcomes is biased away from this central position.
From the central position, the chance of 5-0 is 32/243 and the chance of 0-5 is 1/243, which indicates the 32:1 ratio of winning that I found by exhaustive calculation.What I am struggling to do is to explain why this ratio is the actual result, as a
Write total bank as B, set constant stake at 1, bet pays even money so at each step bank moves up 1 with prob p, down 1 with prob (1-p)=q
Say you stop after your bank reaches some amount W
Now let R_B = Pr(Funds reach W before they reach 0, given current bank B)
Then we have to solve
R_B = q * R_(B+1) + p * R_(B-1) (***)
With boundary conditions R_0 = 0 and R_W = 1
Try solution R_B = A * k ^ B (A, k constant)
Substitute into (***) to get quadratic in k, two solutions. Substitute B=0, W to find constants
Gives
R_B = ( 1 - ( q / p ) ^ B ) / ( 1 - ( q / p ) ^ W )
(Note p = q is a special case, working comes out a little different, R_B = B / W)
In your case p = 2/3, B = 5, W = 10
Write total bank as B, set constant stake at 1, bet pays even money so at each step bank moves up 1 with prob p, down 1 with prob (1-p)=qSay you stop after your bank reaches some amount WNow let R_B = Pr(Funds reach W before they reach 0, given curre
Apologies to Eldrick if this is just a long-winded version of his method, but you could do this:
Get a series of 9 equations relating the probabilities of winning from the various scores. Eg:
P(win from 9-1) = 1/3 + (2/3 * P(win from 8-2) P(win from 8-2) = 1/3 * P(win from 9-1) + (2/3 * P(win from 7-3)
etc.
and then just solve them simultaneously. (There are 9 equations and 9 unknowns).
Apologies to Eldrick if this is just a long-winded version of his method, but you could do this:Get a series of 9 equations relating the probabilities of winning from the various scores. Eg:P(win from 9-1) = 1/3 + (2/3 * P(win from 8-2)P(win from 8-2
Substituting back up: P(28)=2/3 P(37) + 2/9 P(28) P(28)=6 P(37)/7
And now there's a series where the next calc=2pd/2pd +1 where pd=previous denominator. So P(37)=14(P46)/15 ...
Until P(91)=1022/1023
So P(55) ( the calc for winning from 5-5) is 1022/1023* 510/511* 254/255* 126/127* 62/63
which=32/33
I'm not familiar with any high falutin' maths stuff, so apologies for the kitchen sink approach!Contrarian, I have the equations as:(where P(91) = prob of winning from 9-1 ahead)P(91)=2/3 + 1/3 P(82)P(82)=2/3 P(91)+1/3 P(73) ...P(28)=2/3 P(37) + 1/3
when W = 2B you can rewrite the denominator as difference of two squares, then simplify to get:
R_B = 1 / ( 1 + ( q / p ) ^ B )
q/p = 1/2 and B = 5 gives:
R_5 = 1 / (1 + (1/2)^5) = 32/33 = 0.03030303...
same solution basicallywhen W = 2B you can rewrite the denominator as difference of two squares, then simplify to get:R_B = 1 / ( 1 + ( q / p ) ^ B )q/p = 1/2 and B = 5 gives:R_5 = 1 / (1 + (1/2)^5) = 32/33 = 0.03030303...
the chances of two reds being pulled out is ....16.66.....5/1 thge cnances of two blues being pulled out....16.66......5/1 the chances of two odds balls being poulled out is.......66.66....1/2 the chances of any matched coloured balls being pulled out is 33.33 2/1
the chances of two reds being pulled out is ....16.66.....5/1thge cnances of two blues being pulled out....16.66......5/1the chances of two odds balls being poulled out is.......66.66....1/2the chances of any matched coloured balls being pulled out i
1. did your maths teacher never tell you to spend an insanely excessive amount of time reading the question before you picked up your pen?
2. i'm going to lay you 10/1 about two blue balls coming out, because i think you're special. how much would you like?
1. did your maths teacher never tell you to spend an insanely excessive amount of time reading the question before you picked up your pen?2. i'm going to lay you 10/1 about two blue balls coming out, because i think you're special. how much would you