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France 1.31 to 1.39

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Replies: 48
By:
GTFI
When: 10 Jun 16 20:25
game odds at ko are 1.3,  ie you could win 30p for each £,  if it then swings to 0.6 ie, you can win 60p for each pond,  isnt that a 100% swing?
By:
bettinghelp
When: 10 Jun 16 20:33
How long have you people been betting? Don't you know that an x percentage change in odds and an x percentage change in the probability of the event occurring, whilst directly related, are categorically not the same thing?

Do you really not know the difference?
By:
clacherholiday2
When: 10 Jun 16 20:35
your returns increased 100%, your odds didnt
By:
Ibrahima Sonko
When: 10 Jun 16 20:36
Crazy
By:
clacherholiday2
When: 10 Jun 16 20:38
pantsonfire • June 10, 2016 4:16 PM BST
Thats over 20% drift on opening price.


thats where this started Grin 

i take you guys think 4/1 is 100% increase on 2/1?
By:
Charlton2005
When: 10 Jun 16 20:39
clacherholiday2 10 Jun 16 20:11 Joined: 02 Jun 04 | Topic/replies: 6,712 | Blogger: clacherholiday2's blog
6/4 is double 4/1, 40% v 20%


for the avoidance of doubt, is the above an example of a 100% change or a 20% change?
By:
clacherholiday2
When: 10 Jun 16 20:40
4/1 is a 20% swing of odds over 6/4
By:
Charlton2005
When: 10 Jun 16 20:42
but you have stated 6/4 is double 4/1. isnt double = 100%?
By:
clacherholiday2
When: 10 Jun 16 20:52
double isnt 100% no Laugh

ok so educate me in your skewed logic that makes odds of 1.3 to 1.4 a 20% increase.  what would you consider as a 50% increase?
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