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game odds at ko are 1.3, ie you could win 30p for each £, if it then swings to 0.6 ie, you can win 60p for each pond, isnt that a 100% swing?
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How long have you people been betting? Don't you know that an x percentage change in odds and an x percentage change in the probability of the event occurring, whilst directly related, are categorically not the same thing?
Do you really not know the difference? |
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your returns increased 100%, your odds didnt
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pantsonfire • June 10, 2016 4:16 PM BST
Thats over 20% drift on opening price. thats where this started i take you guys think 4/1 is 100% increase on 2/1? |
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clacherholiday2 10 Jun 16 20:11 Joined: 02 Jun 04 | Topic/replies: 6,712 | Blogger: clacherholiday2's blog
6/4 is double 4/1, 40% v 20% for the avoidance of doubt, is the above an example of a 100% change or a 20% change? |
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4/1 is a 20% swing of odds over 6/4
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but you have stated 6/4 is double 4/1. isnt double = 100%?
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double isnt 100% no
![]() ok so educate me in your skewed logic that makes odds of 1.3 to 1.4 a 20% increase. what would you consider as a 50% increase? |