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I have spent hours trying to work out some odds on two figures, google has failed hopefully one of you guys can help. So the question:
if 40% of Millionaires are dyslexic
and
10 % of the public is dyslexic
how much more likely is a dyslexic person to become a millionair?
if 40% of Millionaires are dyslexic
and
10 % of the public is dyslexic
how much more likely is a dyslexic person to become a millionair?
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Replies: 11
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6 times more likely
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its far too early to answer things like this,im not saying I could at any time mind you.
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Not sure why anyone would even want to know the answer to that.
And what % of the public are millionaires? ;) |
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Thankyou DStyle how in gods name did you work that out
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1% of the public become self made millionaires, the percentage of millionaires is obviously hire due to the landed gentry
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i could be wrong but lets assume the natural frequency of millionaires amongst the public is 1 in 10000.
(it doesn't actually matter what it is). so out of our 10000 people, we have 100 millionaires and 9900 peope who aren't millionaires. 40 of those millionaires will be dyslexic, 60 wont. 1000 of the 10000 people will be dyslexic, 9000 wont. the probability therefore of a dyslexic person being a millionaires is 40 out of 1000. the probability of a nondyslexic person is 60 out of 9000. the ratio is therefore 4/6*9:1 |
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*assume the probability is 1 in 100
as i say it doesn't matter, because the ratio between dyslexic and non dyslexic people is constant, so that proability cancels out |
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or (40/60)/(10/90)
ie the percentages |
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So based on those figures 4% of dyslexic people will be millionares?
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This is a Bayes' Theorem question. I make it:
If M is Millionaires, D is Dyslexia. P(M|D) = P(D|M)P(M)/P(D) = 0.4 * P(A)/0.1 = 4 * P(M) |
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I'm rchi adn I dont gvie a kfuc wath the aneswer is
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