Last night, before all the withdrawals from the market, the Gold Cup ante-post turnover was well over £1M, and when I logged on today, it's now dropped to £980,000
Has anyone got a clue what's gone on?
Also, is there an 'equigreen' calculation available, to see what my guaranteed minimum would be, where ALL the runners would return the same amount?
I even took a screensaver shot of it, as I've done over the months, so I know what stages the market starts to move next time around.
It DEFINITELY was over a million!
Duncan - no Friday session for me Sir! I even took a screensaver shot of it, as I've done over the months, so I know what stages the market starts to move next time around.It DEFINITELY was over a million!
Odd that, isnt it? Cant think of a good reason why that should happen or why Betfair would want to play around with it....wasnt doubting you....just joking
Odd that, isnt it? Cant think of a good reason why that should happen or why Betfair would want to play around with it....wasnt doubting you....just joking
We've not past the supplementary entry stage, so Betfair remove all turnover that is no longer relevant i.e. it's deemed settled.
If anything happens on race day which forces a re-run or reschedule, then the card is only rolled back to the 5 day mark...that's today
Nothing underhand Hugh.We've not past the supplementary entry stage, so Betfair remove all turnover that is no longer relevant i.e. it's deemed settled.If anything happens on race day which forces a re-run or reschedule, then the card is only rolled
LUFC - that would seem to make sense but for the reduction to be only approximately 10% of the turnover, and considering the amount of withdrawals, it doesn't seem that high.
FWIW, I still can't really understand that plausible assumption of yours, because that money HAS been traded, so backers have lost and layers have profited.
If that's the case, then this scenario must occur on every ante-post market - has anyone ever noticed this?
LUFC - that would seem to make sense but for the reduction to be only approximately 10% of the turnover, and considering the amount of withdrawals, it doesn't seem that high.FWIW, I still can't really understand that plausible assumption of yours, be