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Skeletor1
12 Jul 10 00:34
Joined:
Date Joined: 11 Jul 10
| Topic/replies: 3 | Blogger: Skeletor1's blog
Backed Muller £2 at 20.0 why did I return £8 with only £6 profit - doesn't correlate with other posts that top goalscorer decided with 1/4 stake at existing odds.
Pause Switch to Standard View Again I have problem with Muller pay out
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Report Princess Purple Guitar July 12, 2010 12:48 AM BST
2 X 19/1 = £38

However you have .50 X 19/1 = 9.50...you have lost 1.50 of your stake so take that away and you have a figure of 8 returned and thus a £6 profit

voila!
Report Skeletor1 July 12, 2010 8:47 AM BST
thanks thebus13.  It all makes more sense now the effect of the cervezas has passed...
Report sugarfoot July 12, 2010 10:40 AM BST
thebus13 Joined: 02 Nov 03
Replies: 1122 12 Jul 10 00:48 
2 X 19/1 = £38

However you have .50 X 19/1 = 9.50...you have lost 1.50 of your stake so take that away and you have a figure of 8 returned and thus a £6 profit

voila!
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don't think you have thought that through
50p  at 19/1 returns £10
he has staked £2.  whatever way you count it, that's an £8 profit
Report therhino July 12, 2010 11:08 AM BST
I have a different problem with Muller pay out. I placed a bet yesterday (about 6 hours AFTER 3rd place playoff). it was Muller top scorer/spain to lift trophy combo, odds were 15.5. I received 25% payout, based on the fact muller split top scorer with 3 others. My problem is, the 15.5 was NEVER a possibility, so why was it advertised. If i had've known the odds were really 3.8 or thereabouts I would have bet on something different. The guy on the phone at betfair in Australia says bad luck, but it is utter crap IMO that the odds can be offered when 25% is the best outcome (and only if bet successful) possible. RIPPED OFF. Can anyone weigh in?
Report db1974 July 12, 2010 11:21 AM BST
Why did you place the bet if you knew it couldn't win outright?
Report therhino July 12, 2010 11:23 AM BST
I didn't know it couldn't win outright, i thought the 15.5 would be honoured, hence my frustration!!! I don't believe the 15.5 should have been on the webpage as a valid bet option when in reality the odds were 3.8, am I right?
Report db1974 July 12, 2010 11:39 AM BST
I see your point but presumably the 3.8 was actually the "true" odds, as opposed to the 15.5
Report therhino July 12, 2010 11:52 AM BST
thanks db1974, what I'm wanting to know is has the agency done something wrong here by offering 15.5 while having no intention to pay? I think the 15.5 should be honoured, the true odds should be the odds they are offering!!! You shouldn't have figure out if odds on a betting website are true or not when placing a bet!
Report Shaky July 12, 2010 9:07 PM BST
their market will have been running since before the start of the world cup, the rules would clearly state that dead heat rules apply, the 15.5 odds would have factored in the fact that it was a 4 way dead heat at best for mueller. You were basically betting on spain to win and villa and sneijder not to score.

The prices would need to be as they were, since 2 of the runners in the market still had chances to win it outright if they scored in the final.

I would advise not to bet on things if you dont understand what you are betting on and especially not if you dont even have a remote idea of its chance of winning.
Report Lori July 12, 2010 9:38 PM BST
I think they should void your bet as it's not the bet you wanted.
Report bbsband July 12, 2010 11:03 PM BST
in running markets expect you to be aware of what is happening at that time (and the market rules) hence your payout.at that time there was 4 joint top scorers.can see why someone could get confused though.gl
Report sugarfoot July 13, 2010 12:16 PM BST
I'm with Shaky on this one, how on earth anyone could expect 15.5 to be paid in full is anyone's guess.  What price where the other three paired with Spain?  At what odds would that have given you Spain outright if you had dutched all four, plus lobbed in a "hat-trick scored" to cover any other eventuality?
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