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ghostwriter11
11 Mar 12 08:13
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Date Joined: 28 Jan 12
| Topic/replies: 83 | Blogger: ghostwriter11's blog
Why is it  fraudulent for an owner /trainer to lay his own horse to lose ? Yet not fraudulent for them to back another horse in the same race to win ? What's the difference ?

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Replies: 6
By:
ghostwriter11
When: 11 Mar 12 08:24
Ok simple equation 4 horse race all trading @4 owner backs the all horses except his own - in reality lays his own horse @4- Why is that acceptable ?
By:
ghostwriter11
When: 11 Mar 12 08:28
Ok next observation - If its fraud to lay your own horse to loase is it ok to back all the others with a bookmaker ?
By:
frog2
When: 11 Mar 12 08:45
Not all bookmakers have MOU with the HRA and those that do are not as open as Betfair. Also they all untraceable cash betting. So it would be unenforceable.
By:
ghostwriter11
When: 11 Mar 12 10:07
Frog my point is to ban people who lay their own horses to lose and not those backing others to win is plain stupid
By:
ghostwriter11
When: 11 Mar 12 10:09
When those who make rules don't think them through (like the whip rule ) it ends up in a mess.
By:
Stake & Chips
When: 11 Mar 12 10:13
It's amazing that no one has spotted this before,ghostwriter11!?
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