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I think this is going to be
56!/(3!x53!) X (1/57)^3 X (56/57)^53 Can work it out on my phone. Also, try excel binomial dist N=56 P=1/57 R=3 |
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well if you can post the calculation answer tht would be awesome also!
But we are working out the odds of getting 3 in 100 goes. I say that as didnt see 100 in the calculation anywhere. Another way of thinking about this would be to get 3 56-1 winners in 100 bets on only 56-1 shots! Thanks in advance :) |
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ok, so 100 ticket and exactly 3 with 3 numbers (assuming 1/57 probability of 3 numbers) = 15.6%
100 ticket and at least 3 with 3 numbers = 25.7% |
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Hey, thanks for that, so its a 3-1 shot!
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It'd be different if it's "getting 3 numbers up 3 seperate times" or you mean "getting 3 numbers up AT LEAST 3 seperate times" as JLivermore suggests.
I quite believe "100 ticket and at least 3 with 3 numbers = 25.7%" might be right but exactly 3 numbers being 15.6%, that sounds instinctively a bit high? and .. just worked it out, JLivermore is correct, instincts were wrong. Read this to understand: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution and you can plug the values into pre-made calculators. (remember probabiity of 0.15 is probably what you'd express as 15%) |
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Actually that wiki page is a bit difficult. But that't theequation, as stated in shorthand by JL on his first post.
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yes he was correct!
I also found an online resource a binomial calculator, which will definitely come in handy! Strange thing is buying 28 tickets doesnt make us even money, 57/28 aprox .5, but according to binomial calc its around 39 % ! Once again thnx :) |
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http://stattrek.com/online-calculator/binomial.aspx
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maybe think about it with a dice instead.
You're trying to roll 6's. If you roll 3 times are you 50% to get at least one 6? Easiest way to see it is say what is the probability of rolling NO 6's (fail, fail, fail = 5/6x5/6x5/6) = 57.8% So chance of rolling at least 1 6 is 1-57.8% = 42.2% This is the same result you found with your 28 tickets. To try to explain it: If you were pulling balls out of a sack (and not putting them back in) (say 6 balls, numbered 1-6) you would indeed have a 50% chance of picking the 6 ball after 3 attempts But here the dice/tickets are independent (failing once does not improve subsequent chances of success), so going on an extended losing/failing run is easier. |
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you're welcome!
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isn't there a bit more to this problem? I don't think that the trials are independent as losing on one ticket increases the chances of winning on another ticket (assuming that the 100 tickets contain 2000 different combos of 3 -- is that possible anyway?)
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Yeah, my answer assumed random numbers on tickets.
You could improve your chances of getting a small number of winning tickets at the expense of the chance of getting a large number |