I am quite new to methods like arbitrage and am a little confused about something, I think I sort of understand it but I'm not overly clear
I was looking at the same market on Betfair and **** and a result was 2.28 to back on **** and 2.22 to lay on Betfair. So I thought there was a few pounds to be made and lumped on at **** but when fiddling about with the lay stake in Betfair I realised there was no money to be made after all (**** comission only 2.5% as well).
I figure this is to do with the fact you have got comission hurting you at both sides? The price at Betfair then moved out quickly though as if people were arbing so it made me wonder
I'm sure in the past I've noticed people claiming arbs on 2 identical markets at Betfair (e.g. tournament winner and winner of the final) when the price difference wasn't enough to actually make any money..?
Am I correct here? I just find the concept of (for e.g.) backing at evens at **** and laying at evens at Betfair resulting in a sizeable loss strange..
Sam, you do have to take commission into account. Be very careful with diffferent markets though, match winner and tournament outright are not the same market in tennis for example. If a player gets injured early in the match, the match will be void but tournament outright settled.
If you do arb between both exchanges the advantage is that you can then try to arb back to reduce your comm. So if you back at 2.0 on purple and lay 1.94 on betfair then try later to lay purple and back betfair at say 1.98 and eliminate the comm
Sam, you do have to take commission into account. Be very careful with diffferent markets though, match winner and tournament outright are not the same market in tennis for example. If a player gets injured early in the match, the match will be voi