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TheGlobber
17 Aug 10 09:40
Joined:
Date Joined: 03 Aug 10
| Topic/replies: 36 | Blogger: TheGlobber's blog
(Posted on football forum as well by mistake)

If i back lets say the Draw for a football match at 4,00 and the bet is unmatched, do i actually wait for someone to lay the Draw at 4,00?

If so, how do you calculate the stakes that have to be placed for a bet to be matched? Meaning, lets say i bet 10 euros at a price of 4,00. That means that in case i win i ll get a profit of (after commission):

(4,00-1)*10*0.95 = 28.5

So I actually wait for someone to lay the Draw at 4,00 but for how much in order for my bet to be fully matched?

Thanx in advance

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Replies: 9
By:
Deltâ
When: 17 Aug 10 09:48
h
in
h

please
By:
tier
When: 17 Aug 10 09:50
same amount of course...only his/her liability is bigger but the amount is the same
By:
TheGlobber
When: 17 Aug 10 09:51
Could you be more specific?

Please
By:
TheGlobber
When: 17 Aug 10 09:51
Thanx @ tier
By:
tier
When: 17 Aug 10 09:53
it is hard to be more specific....if you want to back 10 euros then this other one must lay 10 euros in order to fully match your bet. Your liability will be 10 euros because you are backing at 4.0 but his liability will be 30 euros because his laying at 4.0
By:
TheGlobber
When: 17 Aug 10 09:53
But his/her liability should cover your win right?

I mean if you are supposed to get a profit (after commission) of 30 euros then his liability should be 30 euros.. Correct?
By:
tier
When: 17 Aug 10 09:54
correct
By:
TheGlobber
When: 17 Aug 10 09:55
"More specific" was a reply to Delta not you.. I fully understood what you said..
By:
TheGlobber
When: 17 Aug 10 09:56
Ok.. Thanx a lot, tier..
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