Applying a bias to odds

Red card first half : 5.00
Red card second half: 3.33
No red card: 2.00

First half: 2.5
Second half: 1.66
No card: money back.

CHEERS, could you break that down for me so I can see how you arrived at those numbers?

Rocket, with the figures you have, and the response you have, you should be able to work it out. If you can't you should not persist.

i'll try and figure it out then you can tell me if i'm right

Good man, it really is quite simple.

Rocket to the FACE 12 Apr 12:15
Take an example:

Say there are 40% of red cards in the first half and 60% in the second half and the price for a red card was 2.00, how would you then adjust the odds to take into account the bias there, if you were able to bet on the half with most red cards but the odds didn't already include the bias.



^That's a hypothetical example btw, so the figures are totally random.



Lori 12 Apr 12:20
Red card first half : 5.00
Red card second half: 3.33
No red card: 2.00

First half: 2.5
Second half: 1.66
No card: money back.


You've stated the odds for the red is 2 so no red is also 2 i.e 50% of a 100% book. Therefore the remaing 50% is split between each half 60/40

60/100 x 50% = 30%
40/100 x 50% = 20%

just convert those percentages to odds 100/300 = 3.33 & 100/20 =5

Ahh right I see. It's a bad example actually because I should have said there were only two outcomes but with two outcomes it would like this?? :


Red Card - 2.00 2/1 50%
No Red Card - 2.00 2/1 50%

100%


Ree Card - 2.5 6/4 40%
No Red Card - 1.66 4/6 60.24%

100.24%