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here's the deal. you bet on a striker to score at a bookie. Game ends up 1-2, and the player you had a bet on (3.25) scored.. But he did so in his OWN goal. however on the scoresheet his name appears and they 'award' the goal to him.
Bookie refuses to pay out, however there's NOTHING in their terms&conditions that's says something about it.
Anyone know about earlier cases about something like this?
Bookie refuses to pay out, however there's NOTHING in their terms&conditions that's says something about it.
Anyone know about earlier cases about something like this?
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an own goal does not count as a score anytime winner
I think the point he is making is that they don't specify the goal has to be for his own team.
indeed. Nothing in the rulebook about it. And on scoresheets they did put the goal to his name... Can a bookie refuse to pay out when they didn't tell it beforehand (shouldnt it be atleast a void then).
I think there is plenty of those types of cases, in which the bookmakers dont specify exactly what the rules are, but you're just expected to know
admittedly if you dont it sucks, and sometimes its pretty unfair
admittedly if you dont it sucks, and sometimes its pretty unfair
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