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Yes. Slavery in North America originally did not have any racial bias.
People - black & white - were 'indentured servants' for 7 years. At the end of that time they were free to go. I think then there was a case of 3 of them running away before thy'd served their sentence,two white and one black, and a judge sentenced the black guy to permanent slavery on the basis that he was not a Christian. When Britain lost the colonies they could no longer send people there as indentured servants, so white slavery was diminished. Later on the slaves were mostly Christians but the law became that if your mother was a slave then so were you, which perpetuated the racial aspect. |
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it worked the other way with Native Americans, Tobes. When a white settler - who had slaves married - say a Cherokee & they had children, the wife & dependants acquired the slaves when the husband passed
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Black people Sold slaves ??
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a book that may interest some - African-American Voices: A Documentary Reader, 1619-1877: - Steven Mintz
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in 1830 in America there were 3,775 free black people who owned 12,740 black slaves
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On average more than 3 I'd never heard that
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I think you will find that black chieftans at the time in West Africa rounded up and sold slaves to the white slave traders question is were they forced to do this or did they do it for their own gain
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that's from a census taken in 1830.
in the early 1800s 3,500 black slaves were owned by American Natives. Which might explain the inability Peggy Flanagan had in naming some blacks as looters during the Minnesota riots |
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free black slave-holders were once in all 13 original States; & later on in every state that advocated slavery. Some historians say that it betrays class divisions that have always existed within the black community. Of course others - blm for instance, will say that it's whiteys excuse to deflect the blame.Was it ever thus, & still is
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