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ihatehwb
04 May 12 22:31
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Date Joined: 13 Dec 02
| Topic/replies: 775 | Blogger: ihatehwb's blog
If you are having a bet on a game of tennis and a person to win the game is 1.25 to 100%, how do you work out the price to win an individual point.  1pt for the correct answer an 1pt extra for showing your working.
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Report ihatehwb May 4, 2012 10:32 PM BST
when i say win the game I mean win a service game.
Report catkins May 4, 2012 10:38 PM BST
1.06
Report ihatehwb May 4, 2012 10:44 PM BST
sorry i mislead you.  What price is he to win each point?  i.e. obviously bigger than 1.25
Report Get On MASSIVE May 5, 2012 12:56 AM BST
1.58 exactly
Report tier May 5, 2012 7:16 AM BST
50-50, he wins or he doesn't :p
Report Feck N. Eejit May 5, 2012 8:31 AM BST
http://www.betangel.com/tennis/

I always meant to get a hold of this just to see if Britain's phenomenal glut of tennis in-running "experts" (all sleepers pre-betfair) sheepishly follow these odds in their quest to gain pole position in the great rip-off that is betfair shell-and-pea. Thankfully I've got more to do with my time.
Report Lori May 5, 2012 3:11 PM BST
I wrote a spreadsheet to do that many years ago Feck, can tell you that it's not an effective method of betting on tennis as it's a game where better players can play to the score.

Methods for predicting tennis odds point by point have come a long way from there.
Report Contrarian May 5, 2012 6:31 PM BST
Get on Massive is spot on. It's almost exactly 1.58.
Report steeringjobnap May 5, 2012 8:17 PM BST
Without doing the stats' math, my first impression of the solution is that to assume a binomial distribution; ans = 80%; known variable = p; => q = 1 - p; set k = 4 [i.e. number of points required to win the game]; n = total number of ways in which the sequence of 4 points can be achieved.

...do I get a mark for my workings?

PS Mort Hill assumes a Weibull distribution...two marks to you Sir if you can define it's limitations for I/R tennis.
Report Andriy May 5, 2012 8:56 PM BST
But it's not necssarily (and often isn't) 4 points to win a game, because you can have a very long series of dueces. In this case you need to win 2 more points than your opponent, and this would have to be modelled as a form of sum of an infinite series since it could go on indefinitely.
Report Contrarian May 5, 2012 9:07 PM BST
In this case you need to win 2 more points than your opponent, and this would have to be modelled as a form of sum of an infinite series since it could go on indefinitely.

No. It's quite simple to deal with the deuce case. If you call the probability of player 1 winning from deuce 'd', then you can create an equation like this:

d = (player 1 wins point)^2 + (2 * (player 1 wins point) * (1 - player 1 wins point) * d)

and then solve.
Report Feck N. Eejit May 5, 2012 11:07 PM BST
Lori, "a long way from" where? Are you talking about the betangel software (not that I've ever seen it).
Report Maximum May 6, 2012 12:55 AM BST
One point from hell IMHO. Happy
Report Maximum May 6, 2012 1:48 AM BST
Listen to some swedish music
Report dunlaying May 6, 2012 5:49 PM BST
The win from a deuce situation could be
p^2 +2P^3q+4p^4q^2 +etc
which is = p^2/[1-2pq]
Report dunlaying May 6, 2012 5:55 PM BST
p^2+P^2(2pq)+P^2(2pq)^2+.....
P^2(1+a+a^2+a^3+....) where a =2pq
(1-a)^-1 expanded is 1+a+a^2+a^3+....
I think that does the deuce because for each successive deuce situation you have two ways to get to it.
Report dunlaying May 6, 2012 6:15 PM BST
A simple model for a game of tennis assuming independence of points is as follows;
P(G)=p^4+4p^4q+10p^4q^2+20p^5q^3/[1-2pq],I think the oddsmakers would have something a little more sophisticated though.
Report kenilworth May 6, 2012 10:14 PM BST
Work it out with a dice. 1,2,3,4 means the servers point.
5 and 6 his opponent's point. It works.
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