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alun2005
01 Jan 18 19:55
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Date Joined: 11 Jan 02
| Topic/replies: 38,815 | Blogger: alun2005's blog
I know this rule has been in force on for years, and certainly adds some drama to the match, but I can’t figure out why they have it.

At the start of the match, the players throw at the bull in order to decide who has the option of throwing first. 

Winning that ‘bull’ contest MUST count for something, otherwise what’s the point of doing it?  Yet in the very final set, the player throwing first is not allowed to win the set 3-2, 4-3 or 5-4. The player who lost the ‘Bull’ contest still has the chance to win.

How can this be right?

I am aware that some people win the ‘bull’ and deliberately give away the throw on the debatable theory that the opening leg represents the best chance to break the opponent’s throw. In my opinion, if you take that risk, you should forgo the chance to carry on if you are 3-2, 4-3, 5-4 down in the final set.

I also think the throw for the bull should be done ONSTAGE at the start, under match conditions. Not behind the scenes where the insiders can have private knowledge and put their bets on accordingly.

What do you all reckon?

It's just possible I've had too many glasses of Absolut so go easy on me.

Happy New Year (hic)

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By:
wondersobright
When: 01 Jan 18 20:05
I am aware that some people win the ‘bull’ and deliberately give away the throw on the debatable theory that the opening leg represents the best chance to break the opponent’s throw. In my opinion, if you take that risk, you should forgo the chance to carry on if you are 3-2, 4-3, 5-4 down in the final set.

I also think the throw for the bull should be done ONSTAGE at the start, under match conditions. Not behind the scenes where the insiders can have private knowledge and put their bets on accordingly.


think you have a case on both counts
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